Bilout
5th May 2011, 04:33 AM
Hello.
For my first post, I have some questions for those who have experience of the in-play markets movements. More precisely, I want to now how a goal being scored affects the markets.
From what I have seen, I have come with the assumption that the chances of a goal being scored (or no goal being scored) remains consistant throughout the match (of course the chances decrease as time goes by).
What I mean would results in the following example.
Let's say the score is 0-0; should a goal be scored, as soon as the market re-open, odd for under 2.5 would jump to where the odd of under 1.5 would have been if the score had remain 0-0.
Another consequence in the correct score market would be that odd for 0-0 would be transfered to the 1-0 correct score (assuming the home team has scored).
Now what about the chances of a goal being scored by a specific team, and its consequences on the correct score market after a goal.
If the same assumption can be made; using the same example, it would mean that odd for 2-0 would now be what used to be the odd for 1-0 before the goal. And odd for 1-1 would now be set to the pre-goal 0-1 odd. And so on.
Of course I imagine that if the goal is scored by the underdog, this assumption might be slightly off as this is not what the market was expecting.
That' why I'd like to get some opinions from experienced in-play bettors.
Thanks.
For my first post, I have some questions for those who have experience of the in-play markets movements. More precisely, I want to now how a goal being scored affects the markets.
From what I have seen, I have come with the assumption that the chances of a goal being scored (or no goal being scored) remains consistant throughout the match (of course the chances decrease as time goes by).
What I mean would results in the following example.
Let's say the score is 0-0; should a goal be scored, as soon as the market re-open, odd for under 2.5 would jump to where the odd of under 1.5 would have been if the score had remain 0-0.
Another consequence in the correct score market would be that odd for 0-0 would be transfered to the 1-0 correct score (assuming the home team has scored).
Now what about the chances of a goal being scored by a specific team, and its consequences on the correct score market after a goal.
If the same assumption can be made; using the same example, it would mean that odd for 2-0 would now be what used to be the odd for 1-0 before the goal. And odd for 1-1 would now be set to the pre-goal 0-1 odd. And so on.
Of course I imagine that if the goal is scored by the underdog, this assumption might be slightly off as this is not what the market was expecting.
That' why I'd like to get some opinions from experienced in-play bettors.
Thanks.